Dear Sir I have to thank you very much for the last papers: the proof for the finite number of the invariants of a binary quantic is very much simplified (& indeed becomes beautifully simple & easy) if instead of invariants you consider Seminvariants" in face writing .... the general form of an irrational Semiinvariant as .... and we obtain all the rational Semiinvariants by considering the like symmetrical forms, or simply prefixing a Σ to the foregoing expression. But by 16)-2 the equation of differences ... where the confficients ... 穴あき不明も、おそらくは are functions of Seminouriants: hence in the expression for S it is only necessary to attend to forms where in each of the exponents p.g... is at most ..., and the number of such forms is finite. Thus every Seminvariant is of the form ... where denote nimber of forms A.B. Is finile, and where s, I rational r integral funchons of the coefficiants ... of the equation of differences, or what is the same thing of a finite number of Seminvariants. I propose to write this one for the Annalen. I congratulate you very heartly on this your solution of what has been so long a difficulty. Believe me dear Sir yours very sincerely A. Cayley Cambridge 22nd Janu. 1809. Dear Sir I am much obliged for your two letters: my difficulty was an a priori one, I thought that the like process should be applicable to Semiinvariants which it seems it is not. & for invariants I now quite see that your to step from .... to ... is quite right. I think you have found the true solution of a great problem. But the proof of theorem I seems to me to heed revision. I understand form" to mean homogeneous form: thus ... the forms .. of theorem I are mere powers of x: and the like for ... & Suppose to fuse the ideas ... and ... I is oboiously true, we have ... that is ...; and hence 4xxx- x which is not homogeneous, & hence in assuming the theorem to be true for the functions ... you are in effect assuming it, not for the value n=1, but for the value n=2: so that you do not in this way pass from Theorem I, n=1 to Theorem II,n=1. I think I see my way to a proof of theorem I, starting with the general case of n variables. I wrote one my proof for the Seminvariants (founded on yours in the Math. Annalen) & sent it to Prof. Klein: it seemed to me all right, and I think[?] it will appear so to you when it is published. Believe me dear Sir, Yours A. Cayley very sincerely Cambridge 30th Janu. 1889 ドイツ語のものは、Hilbert の第10問題を書いたもので、次の様に翻刻される。 Beweisen, dass man durch eine endliche Anzahl von Operationen entscheiden kann, ob und wie viele ganzzahlige Lösungen Φ(x,y...)=0 mit ganzzahlige Coefficienten ‹Koeffizienten› besitzt.